Should moore have followed his own method?

I discuss Soames's proposal that Moore could have avoided a central problem in his moral philosophy if he had utilized a method he himself pioneered in epistemology. The problem in Moore's moral philosophy concerns what it is for a moral claim to be self-evident. The method in Moore's epistemology concerns not denying the obvious. In review of the distance between something's being self-evident and its being obvious, it is suggested that Soames's proposal is mistaken.